ANSWER KEY UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022 PAPER CODE

Posted on June 6, 2022June 6, 2022

ANSWER KEY UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022 PAPER CODE – A

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Category Prelims Previous Year, Uncategorized

ANSWER KEY

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022

PAPER CODE – A

(With proper Explanations & Proofs)

1 “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(d) World Bank

Ans. B

Rapid Financing Instrument:

The RFI is a lending facility of the IMF that provides emergency assistance to member countries. The rapid financial assistance is provided with limited conditionality to all members facing an urgent balance of payments need.

Access under the RFI is subject to an annual limit of 50 percent of quota and a cumulative limit of 100 percent of quota.

Rapid Credit Facility: The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) of IMF provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.

https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2016/08/02/19/55/Rapid-Financing-Instrument

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.

2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statement are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Statement 1 is correct:

NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against its trading partners’ weighted basket of currencies.

Statement 2 is not correct:

An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.

Statement 3 is correct:

An increase in domestic inflation when compared to inflation in other countries causes a divergence between NEER and REER.

3 With the reference to the Indian economy consider the following statement:

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.

2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.

3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (B)

Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to sell government securities for sucking out liquidity from the market.

Eliminate Statement 1 and then come up with option B

4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

2. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.(c)

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris club to support, in a structural manner, Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

https://blogs.imf.org/2021/12/02/the-g20-common-framework-for-debt-treatments-must-be-stepped-up/

5 With reference to the Indian Economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.

2. IIBs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.

3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.(a)

Statement 1 is correct: Government reduces the coupon rates on its borrowings by way of IIBs.

Statement 2 is correct:

Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIB) provide a continuous return to investors regardless of the amount of inflation in the economy.

Statement 3 is not correct:

Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payments and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.

6 With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplace.

2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

companies running marketplace platforms — such as Amazon and Flipkart cannot sell products through companies, and of companies, in which they hold equity stake.

Statement 2 is correct:

Etailers have maintained liability should be with sellers selling goods or services while they have their own internal checks.

https://indianexpres s.com/article/explain ed/new-rules-for-e- commerce-how- they-affect- marketplace-players- buyers-5512553/

7 . Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

Farmers harvesting their crops
Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
A commercial bank lending money to trading company
A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A Constituents of real sector:

The real sector of the economy consists of enterprises (nonfinancial corporations), households and nonprofit institutions serving households. https://www.cba.am

/Storage/EN/publicat ions/statistics/monet ary_stat_manual/sec tors.pdf

8 Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

(d) A foreign company transfers share and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

D Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. https://kluwerlawonl ine.com/journalarticl e/Intertax/45.10/TA XI2017057#:~:text=I

ndirect%20transfers

%20refer%20to%20si tuations,the%20und erlying%20assets%20 in%20India.

9 With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is /are correct?

Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, which equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
A commercial bank lending money to trading company

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

A Statement 1 is correct:

Capital Expenditure are one-time large purchases of fixed assets that will be used for revenue generation over a longer period. It includes expenditure on acquisition of land, building, machinery, loans and advances by central government to state and UTs, PSUs and other parties.

Statement 2 is not correct:

Debt Financing is considered revenue expenditure, while equity financing is considered capital expenditure.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
A share of the household financial saving goes towards government borrowings.
Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internet debts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

C Conceptual.

Statement 1 is correct:

Household savings is defined as the difference between a household’s disposable income and its consumption on goods and services. A share of household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.

Statement 2 is correct: Internal debt constitutes more than 94% of the overall public debt. Dated securities form 48.8% of Government’s Internal Debt.

https://dea.gov.in/sit es/default/files/Final%20Status%20paper%202020-21.pdf

Consider the following statements:
Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the Powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

Statement 1 is correct:

In 1961, a committee headed by H.N. Sanyal, an Additional Solicitor General for the Government of India, was appointed to examine the application of contempt laws in India. Pursuant to this report, Contempt of Courts act 1971 was passed.

Statement 2 is correct:

Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.

Statement 3 is not correct:

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 Section 2(b) provides ‘civil contempt’ means willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other processes of the court or willful breach of an undertaking given to the court.

Section 2 (c ) provides criminal contempt means publication of any matter or doing of any act which: Scandalous Or Lowers The Authority Of The Court.

Prejudice Or Interfere With The Due Course Of Any Judicial Proceedings.

Interfere Or Obstructs The Administration Of Justice.

Statement 4 is correct:

The Parliament of India is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of court. Consequent to this power, it has enacted Contempt of courts act, 1971. https://indianexpres s.com/article/explain ed/explained- contempt-of-court- attorney-general- 7049560/#:~:text=co ntempt%20of%20co urt%3F-

,According%20to%20 the%20Contempt%2 0of%20Courts%20Ac t%2C%201971%2C%

20contempt%20of,u ndertaking%20given

%20to%20a%20court

12 With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Council have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only C Statement 1 is correct:

Law Graduates working in Corporate Fields are not eligible to appear in the courts of law. Thus Corporate Lawyers cannot be called Advocates.

Statement 2 is correct:

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

13 Consider the following statements:

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 B Statement 1 is not correct: Constitution amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

Statement 2 is correct:

24th constitutional amendment made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment bills.

Statement 3 is correct:

There is no provision for joint sitting for passage of the constitution amendment bill.

14 Consider the following statement: B Statement 1 is not correct:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Constitution of India does not have any such classification of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct:

91st amendment act our Indian constitution, made a rule that the size of Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister would not exceed 15% of the total

seat of Lok Sabha.

15 Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only B In India, a motion of no confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India) and is admitted for discussion when at least 50 percent of members present and voting (Simple Majority) to support the motion (under Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules) https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Lok_Sabha# Powers

16 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. B https://www.thehind u.com/news/nationa l/only-parliament- can-frame-law-for- timely-disposal-of- disqualification- petitions-by-speaker-

supreme-

The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 court/article3507218 4.ece

17 Consider the following statement:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 D Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

18 With the reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private orgnisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 C Unlike the other four writs, Quo warranto can be sought by anyone interested, not just the aggrieved party.

19 With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D https://thewire.in/h ealth/explainer- ayushman-bharat- digital-mission- health-id-aadhaar- records

20 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statement:

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principle opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
Thew ell established parliamentary practice recgarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only A Statement 1 is correct:

The election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary shall send to every member notice of the date fixed.

21 Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? B Rice paddies are considered one of the most important

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(d) Wheat sources of CH4 and N2O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming.

CH4 and N2O gases are simultaneously emitted from rice fields to the atmosphere due to their favorable production, consumption, and transport systems. The intensive rice farming system has been creating excessive pressure on rice fields

https://www.science direct.com/science/a rticle/pii/S01678809 17304607

https://onlinelibrary. wiley.com/doi/10.10 02/ghg.1339

22 “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation in which alternate wetting and drying of rice field is practised, results in:

Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D S1 is correct: SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-

tended number of seeds.

The opportunity for making savings in electricity, groundwater, seeds, etc. can justify more robust planning efforts for the promotion of SRI with appropriate investments and strategy to address the sources of resistance to its adoption.

S2 is correct: SRI relies mostly on organic fertilization, methane emissions are greatly reduced without offsetting increases in nitrous oxide.

S3 is correct: Case study: Each hectare of SRI under tubewell irrigation in the Andhra Pradesh study area saved about 845 pumping hours in one season compared to the conventional paddy. This amounts to 3,151 kWh of savings in electricity consumption (assuming 5 HP pumps). Even at a cost of Rs. 4 per unit (kWh), the state will save about Rs.

12,607 on every ha of paddy converted

to SRI management following all of the principles.

https://vikaspedia.in

/agriculture/best- practices/sustainable

-agriculture/crop- management/sri- 2013-new-method- of-growing-rice https://link.springer. com/article/10.1007

/s10333-010-0230-6

23 Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(d) Lake Volta B

Lake Faguibine sits in northern Mali, 80 kilometres from Timbuktu. In the 1970s, following increasingly disastrous periods of drought, the lake began to evaporate. Gradually, sand dunes replaced the vast expanses of water and farming land irrigated by flooding from the River Niger.

https://reliefweb.int

/report/mali/mali- climate-change- transforms-lake- faguibine-desert- exiling-population

24 Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(d) Gungabhadra C Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge which is famously adjudged as the

Grand Canyon of

India. The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills. It is also known as the Hidden Grand Canyon of India as it isn’t very well known around the country.

https://liamtra.com/ blog/know- everything-about- grand-canyon-of- india/

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Gandikota#:

~:text=Gandikota%2 0is%20a%20village% 20and,district%2C%2 0Andhra%20Pradesh

%2C%20India.

25 Consider the following pairs:

Peak Mountains

Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya
Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya
Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly

matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only B S1 is incorrect: Namcha Barwa-Tibet

S2 is correct: Nanda Devi peak forms a part of Kumaon Himalayas. The Kumaon Himalayas comprise the west- central section of the Himalayas in northern India.

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Nanda_Kot

S3 is incorrect: Nokrek: Garo hills

26 The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea A The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia. In its narrowest sense, which is in use today in archaeology and other cultural contexts, it is equivalent to a stretch of land bordering the Mediterranean in southwestern Asia,i.e. the historical region of Syria

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Levant

27 Consider the following countries:

Azerbaijan
Kyrgyzstan
Turkmenistan
Turkemenistan
Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 C S 3,4,5 are correct: Afghanistan, officially the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, a mountainous landlocked country in southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the west, Pakistan to the east and south. It has a small border section with China and India (disputed because it’s in

Pakistan-occupied

Kashmir) to the northeast.

https://www.nations online.org/oneworld

/map/afghanistan_m

ap.htm

28 With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Monazite is a source of rate earths.
Monazite contains thorium.
Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 D S1 is correct: Monazite is a primarily reddish- brown phosphate mineral that contains rare-earth elements. Due to variability in composition, monazite is considered a group of minerals

S2 is correct: Thorium content of monazite is variable and sometimes can be up to 20–30%.

S3 is correct: The beach sands along the coasts of India contain large reserves of strategic minerals like ilmenite, monazite, zircon, etc.

S4 is correct:Monazite is a prescribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act 1962.

Since Monazite is a ‘prescribed substance’, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India,

as a policy, has

restricted all activities in respect of this substance to Government entities only. Indian Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy, is the only organisation that has been permitted till date to export monazite. The Department has not permitted any other individual or company or entity to export monazite.

https://pib.gov.in/ne wsite/PrintRelease.a spx?relid=101496

29 In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(d) Second half of the month of July B The longest day of 2021 for those living north of the Equator is June 21.

In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5 degree north latitude.

https://indianexpres s.com/article/explain ed/summer-solstice- explained-why-june- 21-will-be-the-

longest-day-of-the- year-in-northern- hemisphere- 7367636/#:~:text=in

%20Northern%20He misphere-

,Summer%20solstice

%3A%20Why%20Jun

e%2021%20will%20b e%20the%20longest

%20day,the%20year

%20in%20Northern%

20Hemisphere

30 Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake Locations

Hokera Wetland Punjab
Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh
Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs B S1 is incorrect: Hokera wetland- Jammu and Kashmir

S3 is incorrect: Sasthamkotta lake: Kerala

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Sasthamcot ta_Lake https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Hokersar

31 Consider the following:

Aarogya Setu
CoWIN
DigiLocker
DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 D ALL ARE CORRECT

Open source projects are publicly available and accessible, promoting collaborative participation, rapid prototyping, transparency, meritocracy, and community-oriented development. The philosophy behind the concept of an open-source

ecosystem is the

essential respect for a user’s freedom.

https://www.thehind u.com/sci- tech/technology/aar ogya-setu-app-is- now-open-source- what-does-it- mean/article316894 59.ece https://pib.gov.in/Pr essReleasePage.aspx

?PRID=1732812

32 With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statement:

Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D ALL ARE CORRECT

Web 3.0 is the latest Internet technology that leverages machine learning, artificial intelligence and blockchain to achieve real-world human communication. The icing on the cake is that web 3.0 not only allows individuals to own their data, but they will be compensated for their time spent on the web.

https://www.busines stoday.in/technology

/news/story/web-30- giving-users-control- of-their-data- 335530-2022-05-28

https://www.singlegr ain.com/web3/web- 3-0/

33 With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS), consider the following statements: D S1 is correct: Today’s web-based software

SasS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
SaaS users can access their data through their mobile device.
Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 is flexible enough to be modified for specific business uses but also individual users.

Buyers can customize the user interface (UI) to change the look and feel of the program, as well as modify specific areas, such as data fields, to alter what data appears.

S2 is correct: SaaS is a method of software delivery that allows data to be accessed from any device with an internet connection and a web browser.

S3 is correct: Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, are form of SaaS. With these services, one can log into your account over the Internet, often from a web browser. The email software is located on the service provider’s network and your messages are stored there as well. one can access their email and stored messages from a web browser on any computer or Internet-connected device.

https://azure.micros oft.com/en- in/overview/what-is- saas/ https://www.softwar eadvice.com/resourc es/saas-10-faqs- software-service/

34 Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.

(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. C A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Fractional_ Orbital_Bombardme nt_System

35 Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum Computing

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies B In quantum computing, a qubit or quantum bit is a basic unit of quantum information—the quantum version of the classic binary bit physically realized with a two-state device. A qubit is a two-state (or two- level) quantum- mechanical system, one of the simplest quantum systems displaying the peculiarity of quantum mechanics.

Examples include the spin of the electron in which the two levels can be taken as spin up and spin down; or the polarization of a single photon in which the two states can be taken to be the vertical polarization and the horizontal polarization.

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Qubit

36 Consider the following communication technologies:

Closed-circuit Television
Radio Frequency Identification
Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/ Technologies?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

S1 and S2 are correct: Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. Eg: CCTV, RFID, Medical implants, Metering devices Remote control

https://www.etsi.org

/technologies/short- range-devices

WLAN: Modern implementations of WLANs range from small in-home networks to large, campus-sized ones to completely mobile networks on airplanes and trains.

37 Consider the following statements:

Biofilms can from on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resitance. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D S1 and S2 are correct: Biofilms may form on a wide variety of surfaces, including living tissues, indwelling medical devices, food, industrial or potable water system piping, or natural aquatic systems.

S3 is correct: By forming a biofilm, bacteria protect themselves from host defense, disinfectants, and antibiotics. Bacteria inside biofilm are much more resistant to antimicrobial agents than planktonic forms since bacteria that are unresisting to antimicrobial agents in any way can turn resistant after forming a biofilm.

https://www.ncbi.nl m.nih.gov/pmc/articl es/PMC6312881/

https://www.frontier sin.org/articles/10.3 389/fmicb.2018.008 98/full https://www.intecho pen.com/chapters/7

2109

38 Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: C S1 is correct: Probiotics are made of both bacteria and

Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 yeast. Common probiotic bacteria can include lactobacillus and bifidobacterium. The most common yeast found in probiotics is saccharomyces boulardii.

S2 is incorrect: Probiotics are microorganisms naturally present in the digestive tract that aid in digestion and reduce inflammation. While a person can take probiotic supplements, there are also many probiotic foods available.

S3 is correct: There is evidence that probiotics can alleviate symptoms of lactose intolerance. This can occur by increased hydrolysis of lactose in the dairy product and in the small intestine. It can also be achieved by manipulation of the colonic metabolism. However, the precise mechanism how colonic metabolism influences lactose intolerance symptoms is not yet

known. The reported studies are not

consistent in their experimental set-up, results and conclusions.

https://www.intecho pen.com/chapters/3 9620

39 In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-

19 vaccine named Covisheild using mRNA platform.

Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D ALL ARE CORRECT

Covishield: mRNA Sputnik V: Vector based

COVAXIN:

Inactivated pathogen based

https://www.who.int

/publications/m/ite m/covaxin-(bbv152)- inactivated-covid-19- vaccine https://sputnikvaccin e.com/about- vaccine/#:~:text=The

%20Sputnik%20V%2 0vaccine%20is,vecto rs%20for%202%20va

ccine%20shots.

40 If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: C Solar flares are large explosions from the surface of the sun that emit intense bursts of electromagnetic radiation.

The radiation emitted from solar flares travels at the speed of light and can reach Earth from the sun in just over 8 minutes. As such, we don’t have long to

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only respond to such outbursts.

(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 The geomagnetic storm could have a technological impact on the man-made power grids and satellites.

S5: Keyterms “much over the planet”: Extreme statement

https://earthsky.org/ sun/solar-storms- affect-on-power- grid- internet/#:~:text=Ge omagnetic%20storm s%20generate%20in duced%20currents,a s%20transformers%2 C%20relays%20and% 20sensors.

41 “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted an financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank A Climate Action Tracker

It is an independent scientific analysis that tracks climate actions of governments. It then measures it against the Paris Agreement. It is a collaboration of two organisations, New Climate Institute and Climate Analytics.

This was covered in Sunya IAS Samadhaan 2022/ Prelims Notes

42 Consider the following statement: B EP100 is a global initiative led by the

“The Climate Group” is an international no- profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
the International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition.”

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 international non- profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements.

Energy efficiency is essential as it can deliver over 40% of the reduction in energy related emissions needed to achieve global climate goals. Taking energy efficiency from the boiler room to the boardroom, members are reducing emissions whilst improving competitiveness and inspiring others to follow their lead.

Mahindra & Mahindra becomes first company to join EP100

IEA has no link with EP100. EP100 is

coalition to Climate change groups.

EP100 works on same objectives of IEA but IEA has no role in EP100

Since Statement 2 is eliminated the answer is B

43 “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. D Function of Kidney is to remove waste and toxins, excess water from the bloodstream, which is carried out of the body in urine.

With the above analogy, you need to pick that function of wetlands which fits with above analogy.

Option A is NOT correct as it is talking about wetland water cycle.

Option B is not correct as it is talking about algae which is becoming food for others, here this does not indicate role of Wetlands as Kidney.

Option 3 is not correct: This may sound appealing for those who have just focused on the word “balance”, but mind you, kidney role is to remove excess waste.

Option D is Correct: In this option, UPSC talked about wetland function as removing

excess “waste”

44 In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: B While particles with a diameter of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can penetrate and lodge deep

The 24 hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only inside the lungs, the even more health- damaging particles are those with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5). PM2.5 can

penetrate the lung barrier and enter the blood system.

Key Points:

WHO’s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants — particulate matter (PM 2.5 & PM10),

ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).

The annual average for PM2.5 should not exceed 5 micrograms per cubic metre of air, while the 24- hour average should not exceed 15 micrograms per cubic metre

The annual average for PM 10 should not exceed 15 micrograms per cubic metre of air, while the 24-hour average should not exceed 45 micrograms per cubic metre

The ozone levels average should not exceed 100

micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period The nitrogen oxide levels should not exceed 25 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period

The sulphur dioxide levels should not exceed 40 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period

The carbon monoxide levels should not exceed 4 micrograms per cubic metre over a 24-hour period

45 With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

It is a fungus.
It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statement given above are is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 C A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in Jammu and Kashmir’s Doda district.

Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota

46 With reference to polyethylene terephthalate the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. D Polyethylene Terephthalate Properties

Crystal clear polymer

– It is a crystal clear polymer with good purity and healthy. You must have seen the sparkling PET

Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emission.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 bottles with brilliant glass-clear presentation attract us.

Purity – The products of PET taste good and comply with international food contact regulations. Safe – The objects made from PET like bottles are tough and virtually unbreakable therefore can be easily used for storage and transportation. This polymer has a high impact and tensile strength that makes it ideal for carbonated products.

Good barrier – PET products have low permeability to oxygen, carbon dioxide and water, therefore, it maintains the integrity of products with good shelf life. Lightweight – The lightweight of PET products reduce the shipping costs compared to glass products.

No Leakage and damage – Due to the absence of weld line in the base, PET bottles are free from leakage and damage. Recyclable – PET

polymer is recyclable

and can be reshaped in different shapes. Good resistance power – PET products have good resistance against different chemicals such as acids, bases, etc.

47 Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(d) White Ibis A Golden mahseer is known as the tiger of Indian rivers.

It has been declared endangered by the Washington-based International Union of Conservation of Natural Resources. The mahseer, the longest-living freshwater fish, is native to mountain and sub-mountain regions. It belongs to the genus Tor.

The Pong Dam reservoir, around 250km from state capital Shimla and 190km from Chandigarh, supports an ample population of the golden mahseer

https://www.wwfind ia.org/about_wwf/pr iority_species/threat ened_species/golden

_mahseer/

48 Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

Alfalfa
Amaranth
Chickpea
Clover A Alfalfa fixes more nitrogen than any legume crop. In fact, a stand can fix as much as 300 pounds of N per acre per

Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 year. It uses much of this nitrogen to produce protein in the plant, which growers can harvest and feed to livestock. Chickpea and faba bean provide many benefits in northern cropping rotations, including the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (N2), resulting in more soil N for following cereal crops. The amount of nitrogen fixed is determined by how well the pulse crop grows and the level of nitrate in the soil at planting.

The advantage of red clover is that it is a very vigorous crop capable of fixing up to 250kg/ha of nitrogen in its first full year.

USE ELIMINATION METHOD SPINACH IS NOT A LEGUME PLANT

https://www.science direct.com/science/a rticle/pii/S1319562X 21010019

49 “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

exploration/extraction of shale gas A Mineral Accretion Technology

Also called ‘Biorock Technology’, it is a method that applies safe, low voltage electrical currents

through seawater,

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forest/protected areas causing dissolved minerals to crystallize on structures, growing into a white limestone (CaCo3) similar to that which naturally makes up coral reefs and tropical white sand beaches.

Biorock, also known as Seacrete or Seament, refers to the substance formed by electro- accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater.

The formed material has a strength similar to concrete. It can be used to make robust artificial reefs on which corals grow at very rapid rates.

Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy in building their own calcium carbonate skeletons. The technology also helps corals, including the highly sensitive branching corals, to counter the threats posed by global warming.

https://www.thehind u.com/sci- tech/science/india- begins-coral- restoration-in-gulf- of- kachchh/article3064 5770.ece

This was covered in Sunya IAS Samadhaan Prelims

Notes

50 The “Miyawaki method’ is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal area and on sea surfaces. C Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki endowed the Miyawaki technique to create dense forests with native plants. This unique method is used worldwide for urban afforestation by growing a forest in someone’s backyard. It includes planting trees as close as possible in the same area which not only saves space, but the planted saplings also support each other in growth and block sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby preventing the growth of weed. Thus the saplings become maintenance-free (self-sustainable) after the first three years.

It helps to create a forest in just 20 to 30 years while through

conventional

methods it takes anywhere between 200 to 300 years.

https://indianexpres s.com/article/cities/ mumbai/urban- forests-miyawaki- technique-helps- create-dense-green- patches-in-one-year- 7218624/

This was covered in Sunya IAS Samadhaan 2022/ Prelims Notes

51 In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects ?

Administration of Justice
Local Self-Government
Land Revenue
Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4 C Division of Subjects: Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’.

The reserved list, under which the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats.

It included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation etc.

All important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive.

The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.

It included subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.

In case of failure of constitutional machinery in the province the governor could take over the administration of transferred subjects also.

USE ELIMINATION METHOD AS LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT COMES UNDER TRANSFERRED SUBJECTS HENCE OPTION C IS ONLY CORRECT CHOICE

52 In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

(a) Clothing

(b) Coins

(d) Weapons B A small gold or silver coin formerly in widespread use in southern India.

https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Fanam

53 Consider the following freedom fighters:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only D The Ghadar Party was an international political movement consisting of expatriate Indians to overthrow British rule in India. The official founding has been dated to a meeting on 15 July 1913 in Astoria, Oregon, the United States of America.

Barindra Kumar Ghosh, the younger

brother of Sri Aurobindo Ghosh, was an Indian revolutionary and journalist. Being born in England, he received education in Deoghar and military training from Baroda. He was highly influenced by Aurobindo and thus, joined the revolutionary movement. – Since he is in UK, so he is eliminated

Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was an Indian freedom fighter, revolutionary and member of Rajya Sabha. — So he is also eliminated

So the correct answer is D

Wikipedia – Key participants in the Ghadar Movement included Bhai Parmanand, Vishnu Ganesh Pingle, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Bhagwan Singh Gyanee, Har Dayal, Tarak Nath Das, Bhagat Singh Thind, Kartar Singh Sarabha, Abdul Hafiz Mohamed Barakatullah, Rashbehari Bose, and Gulab Kaur.

Although its

attempts at overthrowing the British Raj were unsuccessful, the insurrectionary ideals of the Ghadar Party influenced members of the Indian Independence Movement opposed to Gandhian nonviolence.

54 With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 B Proposals of Cripps Mission

Setting up of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the freedom to remain with the British Commonwealth or to secede from it. It would also be at liberty to take part in international organisations.

A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.

Any province which wouldn’t accept the new constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with the British

The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would

be safeguarded by negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British government. In the meantime, until this new constitution came into force, India’s defence would be controlled by the British and the powers of the Governor-General would remain unaltered.

Gandhi called Cripps Mission ‘A post- dated cheque drawn on a failing bank’ due to the Cripps offer of Dominion Status after the war.

55 With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

Nettipakarana
Parishishtaparvan
Avadanashataka
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts ?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 B The Nettipakarana is a Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya of Theravada Buddhism’s Pali Canon. – https://encyclopedia ofbuddhism.org/wiki

/Nettipakarana

The Parishishtaparvan also known as the Sthaviravalicharitra is a 12th-century Sanskrit mahakavya by Hemachandra which details the

histories of the earliest Jain teachers. – https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Parishishta parvan

The Avadānaśataka or “Century of Noble Deeds (Avadāna)” is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana.

Ratnamālāvadāna. The work may be from the Mulasarvastivada school. – https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Avadanasat aka

Mahapurana or Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE. Mahapurana consists of two parts. The first part is Ādi purāṇa written by Acharya Jinasena.

The second part is Uttarapurana which is the section composed by

Gunabhadra. – https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/Mahapuran a_(Jainism)

56 With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical person Known as

Aryadeva – Jaina scholar
Dignaga – Buddhist scholar
Nathamuni – Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(d) All three pairs C Aryadeva and Dignaga are buddhist scholar

While Nathamuni is a vaishnava scholar

57 With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

B Statement 1 is incorrect:

A Textbook of Social Science for Class 7 based on the latest syllabus of NCERT by D N Kundra

Statement 2 is correct

58 With reference to Indian history, who of the

following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants

(b) Qalandars

(d) Sayyids D

V.D Mahajan Page 364

Kulah Daran is

Sayyids

59 With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : B Statement 1 is Incorrect: Gajapati

The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 rulers ruled from 1434–1541, while the Dutch founded their first factory in Masaulipatam in Andhra Pradesh in 1605.

Statement 2 is correct: In 1510 AD, Afonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur, Ismail Adil Shah with the help of Krishnadev raya (ruler of Vijaynagar empire). He is also known to have abolished the practice of Sati in Goa.

Statement 3 is

correct: On 22

August 1639, English official Francis Day obtained a grant of a 3-mile-long strip of land for the East India Company from the local ruler, Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, the Nayaka of Wandiwash. (Part of Vijaynagar empire)

60 According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct ?

A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
If a son born to a female slave was fathered

by her master, the son was the entitled to the legal status of the master’s son. D Statement 1 is correct: Correct from the given below source: Bonded Labour in India: A Socio-Legal Study by Rish Nainta.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Check the below snapshot taken from the book: ‘The Penguin History of Early India’ by Romila Thapar

61 Consider the following statements:

Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 A Statement 3 is

incorrect: A

depreciation of the domestic currency will lead to an increase in the value of foreign currency debts in domestic currency terms. Thus, devaluation increases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Thus, Option A is correct.

Source: https://www.ecb.euro pa.eu/pub/pdf/fsr/art

/ecb.fsrart201006en_ 05.pdf

62 Consider the following States :

Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Himachal Pradesh
Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea- producing States ?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(d) All four States C

Andhra Pradesh is generally not a tea- producing state.

Other states are producing tea which can be seen in the above image.

Source: https://teacoffeespic eofindia.com/tea/te a-statistics/

63 Consider the following statements

In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. B Statement 1 is incorrect: Credit rating

agencies are regulated

The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statèments given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3. by SEBI. The SEBI

(Credit Rating

Agencies) Regulations,

1999 govern the credit

rating agencies and

provide for eligibility

criteria for registration

of credit rating

agencies, monitoring

and review of ratings,

requirements for a

proper rating process,

avoidance of conflict of

interest and inspection

of rating agencies by

SEBI, amongst other

things.

Thus, Option B is

correct.

Source:

https://www.sebi.gov

.in/sebi_data/faqfiles/

oct-

2021/1634902664371.

pdf

64 With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?

The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 B Statement 1 is

incorrect: The

chairman of BBB is not

necessarily the RBI

Governor. Current

Chairman of BBB is

Bhanu Pratap Sharma

who is not an RBI

Governor.

Thus, Option B is

correct.

Elimination Technique

Source:

https://banksboardbu

reau.org.in/board-

members/

65 With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: C Statement 1 is correct:

Convertible bonds are a flexible financing

As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 option for companies. A convertible bond offers investors a type of hybrid security, which has features of a bond such as interest payments while also providing the opportunity of owning the stock. Due to the option to convert the bond into common stock, they offer a lower coupon rate.

Statement 2 is correct:

Thus, Option C is correct.

https://www.investo pedia.com/terms/c/c onvertiblebond.asp#:

~:text=option%20for

%20companies.-

,A%20convertible%2 0bond%20offers%20i nvestors%20a%20ty pe%20of%20hybrid% 20security,get%20fro m%20converting%20 one%20bond.

https://www.econo mist.com/finance- and- economics/2021/07/ 10/why-convertible- bonds-are-the-asset- class-for-the-times

66 Consider the following:

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Missile Technology Control Regime
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only D Statement 1 is correct: It is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. It aims to connect people, services and

(d) 1, 2 and 3 markets that over time will impact the lives of billions and build a better future by investing in sustainable infrastructure and other productive sectors. China is its biggest shareholder and India is the second-largest.

Statement 2 is correct: India was inducted into the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 as the 35th member.

Statement 3 is correct: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) was established as a multilateral association to ensure security and maintain stability across the vast Eurasian region. It envisages joining forces to counteract emerging challenges and threats, and enhance trade, as well as cultural and humanitarian cooperation. It was created in 2001. Prior to the creation of SCO in 2001, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan were members of the Shanghai Five. India and Pakistan became members in 2017.

Thus, Option D is correct.

67 Consider the following statements:

Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world, in the recent years.
Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system
Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(d) 1 and 2 C Statement 1 is correct:

Vietnam is the fastest

growing world

economy with a growth

rate of 7.31% in 2019. It

has surpassed the

growth rate of other

Asian economies

including India and

China, which stand at

4.5% and 6% CAGR

respectively.

The primary factor

contributing to this

massive leap in

Vietnam’s economic

growth is the amount

of Foreign Direct

Investment coming in

from investors around

the world, especially

the Republic of Korea,

Japan, and Singapore.

Almost 68% of the total

FDI capital was

invested in the

manufacturing

industry and 10.4% in

real estate.

Statement 2 is

incorrect: Vietnam is a

Marxist–Leninist one-

party state based on

democratic centralism.

This means that only

one political party, the

Communist Party of

Vietnam (Đảng Cộng

Sản Việt Nam) is legally

allowed to hold

effective power.

Vietnamese elections

conform to the popular

front principle used in

communist countries.

Statement 5 is incorrect:

Thus, Option C is correct.

Source: https://en.wikipedia. org/wiki/List_of_poli tical_parties_in_Viet nam#:~:text=Vietna m%20is%20a%20Ma rxist%E2%80%93Leni nist,principle%20use d%20in%20communi st%20countries.

https://locus.sh/reso urces/bulletin/vietna ms-economic- growth/

68 In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(d) Reserve Bank of India D The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.

In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.

Option D is correct.

Source: https://www.rbi.org.i n/scripts/FS_Overview

.aspx?fn=2752#:~:text

=Accordingly%2C%20t

he%20Central%20Gov ernment%20notified,li

mit%20of%202%20per

%20cent.

69 With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 A Statement 3 is

incorrect: Non-fungible

tokens (NFTs) are

cryptographic assets on

a blockchain with

unique identification

codes and metadata

that distinguish them

from each other. Unlike

cryptocurrencies, they

cannot be traded or

exchanged at

equivalency. This

differs from fungible

tokens like

cryptocurrencies,

which are identical to

each other and,

therefore, can serve as

a medium for

commercial

transactions.

Thus, Option A is

correct.

Source:

https://www.investop

edia.com/non-

fungible-tokens-nft-

5115211

70 Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs States

Ghataprabha – Telangana
Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
Indira Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
Maithon – Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs C Ghataprabha – Karnataka

Gandhi Sagar – Madhya

Pradesh

Indira Sagar – Madhya

Pradesh

Maithon – Jharkhand

Thus, Option C is

correct.

71 In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System C

72 In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal- bearing areas.
It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 C Functions and responsibilities of CCO: (As per Indian Year Book)

Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.
To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.
To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.
To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/

trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.

To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to sub-divide a mine.
Assessment and collection of excise duty levied on all raw coal raised and dispatched.
Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of central and state governments, national and international organisations.

Under Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 – Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.

As per the order below it does not entertain objections relation to commercial aspects

http://www.coalcont roller.gov.in/writere addata/files/notice/ RevisedLaidDown202 1_22.pdf

73 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. A Constitutional

provision under

Schedule-V also

provide for safeguards

against displacement

of tribal population

because of land

acquisition etc. The

Governor of the State

which has scheduled

Areas is empowered to

prohibit or restrict

transfer of land from

tribals and regulate he

allotment of land to

members of the

Scheduled Tribes in

such cases. Land being

a State subject, various

provisions of

rehabilitation and

resettlement as per the

RFCTLARR Act, 2013

are implemented by

the concerned State

Governments.

Source:

https://pib.gov.in/Pres

sreleaseshare.aspx?PRI

D=1579747

74 Consider the following statements :

The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? D Statement 1 is

incorrect: The India

Sanitation Coalition

was launched on

June 25, 2015, at

FICCI, New Delhi. ISC

is a multi-

stakeholder platform

that brings together

the private sector,

government,

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi- lateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanising India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.

NIUA although gets support from MoHUA but it doesn’t fall under MoHUA.

https://www.indiasa nitationcoalition.org/

https://niua.in/Abou t_NIUA#aboutNiua

75 Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? C Central Ground Water

Authority (CGWA) was

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(d) National Water Development Agency constituted under sub- section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

for the purposes of

regulation and control

of ground water

development and

management in the

country. The Authority

is engaged in various

activities related to

regulation of ground

water development to

ensure its long-term

sustainability.

Option C is correct.

Source:

http://cgwb.gov.in/ab

outcgwa.html

76 With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements :

It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 A Credentials Committee

A Credentials

Committee is

appointed at the

beginning of each

regular session of the

General Assembly. It

consists of nine

members, who are

appointed by the

General Assembly on

the proposal of the

President.

The Committee

reports to the

Assembly on the

credentials of

representatives.

Structure and

Functions

The credentials of

representatives and

the names of members

of the delegation of

each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs (Rule 27 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly thereon (Rule 28 of the Rules of Procedure of the General Assembly).

Thus, Option A is correct.

Source: https://www.un.org/e n/ga/credentials/crede ntials.shtml

77 Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. A The Polar Code is intended to cover the full range of shipping- related matters relevant to navigation in waters surrounding the two poles – ship design, construction and equipment; operational and training concerns; search and rescue; and, equally important, the protection of the unique environment and eco-systems of the polar regions.

The Polar Code includes mandatory

measures covering safety part (part I-A) and pollution prevention (part II-A) and recommendatory provisions for both (parts I-B and II-B).

Thus, Option A is correct.

Source: https://www.imo.org/ en/OurWork/Safety/Pa ges/polar-code.aspx

78 With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :

The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 D The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations and other entities Permanent Observer Status.

The UN Charter and the General Assembly Rules of Procedure have no provisions related to granting permanent observer status.

The process is described in a legal opinion of 15 August 2008, published in the 2008 United Nations Juridical Yearbook, p. 438 (in English), part B, paragraphs 8-11. The legal opinion cites decision 49/426 of 19 December 1994, (attached) in which the General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and

intergovernmental

organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.

In paragraph 2 of General Assembly

resolution 54/195, (linked below), the Sixth Committee of the General Assembly

considers all

applications for observer status before they are considered in the plenary session.

Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

Thus, Option D is correct.

Source: https://ask.un.org/faq/ 14519

79 With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

The Tea Board is a statutory body.
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 D Tea Board was set up as a statutory body on 1st April, 1954 as per Section (4) of the Tea Act, 1953. As an apex body, it looks after the overall development of the tea industry. The Board consists of 32 Members, including Chairman and Deputy Chairman appointed by the Government of India representing different sections of the Tea industry. The Board’s Head Office is

situated in Kolkata and

there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu. Besides, there are 18 regional offices spread over in all the major tea growing states and four metros. For the purpose of tea promotion, three overseas offices are located at London, Dubai and Moscow.

Thus, Option D is correct.

Source: https://commerce.gov. in/about- us/autonomous- bodies/commodity- boards/tea- board/#:~:text=DEPAR TMENT%20OF%20CO MMERCE,-

%2BA%20A%20%2DA&

text=Tea%20Board%20 was%20set%20up,dev elopment%20of%20th e%20tea%20industry.

80 Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government

project/programme A Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products

are environmentally friendly.

Thus, Option A is correct.

https://www.investo pedia.com/terms/g/ greenwashing.asp

81 Consider the following statements :

High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 D Statement 1 is incorrect: High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Statement 2 is incorrect: Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. https://earthobservato ry.nasa.gov/features/ Clouds#:~:text=Low

%2C%20thick%20cl ouds%20primarily% 20reflect,the%20surf ace%20of%20the%2

0Earth.

82 Consider the following statements:

Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only C Statement 1 is incorrect : Bidi Bidi Islands are located in Uganda https://bidibidi.carita s.org/

Statement 2 is correct: People who fled South Sudan civil war have taken refuge there https://bidibidi.carita s.org/

Statement 3 is correct

: The Dadaab refugee complex has a population of 218,873 registered refugees and asylum seekers as at the end of July 2020. Dadaab refugee complex consists of three camps.

The first camp was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya

https://www.unhcr.or g/ke/dadaab-refugee-

complex

83 Consider the following countries:

Armenia
Azerbaijan
Croatia
Romania
Uzbekistan

Which of the above are member of the Organization of Turkic States ?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3, 4 and 5 C The Organization of Turkic States, formerly called the Turkic Council or the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States, is an international organization comprising prominent independent Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan.

https://www.turkkon.

org/en/turk-konseyi- hakkinda

84 Consider the following statements:

Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. B Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s

Bhadla Solar Park is

Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only the largest solar power park in the world. Bhadla Solar Park is located in Bhadla, a dry and sandy region in Rajasthan, and spans 14,000 acres. https://www.thehindu

.com/sci-tech/energy- and- environment/worlds- largest-solar-park-in- bhadla- india/article3746266 5.ece

Statement 2 is correct: Kerala’s Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power.

https://www.thehindu

.com/news/national/k erala/cial-to- commission-12- mwp-solar-power- plant-in- payyannur/article650 92954.ece

Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC ) Ltd, has commissioned the largest floating solar PV project of 25MW on the reservoir of its Simhadri thermal station in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh

https://pib.gov.in/Pre ssReleseDetailm.asp

x?PRID=1747847#:~

:text=The%20Nation al%20Thermal%20P ower%20Corporation

,station%20in%20Vi sakhapatnam%2C%2 0Andhra%20Pradesh

85 With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
Ships of all states, whether coastal or land- locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 D Statement 1 is

correct: SECTION 2. LIMITS OF THE TERRITORIAL SEA

Article 3 Breadth of the territorial sea Every State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with this Convention.

Statement 2 is

correct: Article 17 Right of innocent passage Subject to this Convention, ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

Statement 3 is

correct: Article 57 Breadth of the exclusive economic zone The exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the

territorial sea is measured.

https://www.un.org/d epts/los/convention_ agreements/texts/unc los/unclos_e.pdf

86 Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South- East Asian countries claim them. B Japan named five

uninhabited small isles

belonging to an island

group in the centre of a

dispute with China as

part of efforts to

reinforce its claim, a

move likely to spark

anger from Beijing and

another claimant,

Taiwan. The five

islands, named after

directions of the

compass, are part of

the group in the East

China Sea known as

the Senkaku in

Japanese and the

Diaoyu in Chinese.

Five bigger islands in

the group already have

names. Chinese and

Japanese coast guard

ships have regularly

confronted each other

in surrounding waters

https://www.thehindu.

com/news/internationa

l/world//article604220

75.ece

87 Consider the following pairs :

Country Important reason for being in the news recently

Chad – Setting up of permanent C Pair one is Correct: Beijing opened its first foreign military base in Djibouti in the Horn of Africa in

military base by China

Guinea – Suspension of Constitution

and Government by military

Lebanon – Severe and prolonged

economic depression

Tunisia – Suspension of Parliament

by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs 2017. It is said to be building its second foreign military base at Ream, Cambodia. https://indianexpress. com/article/opinion/c olumns/united-states- united-arab-emirates- china-military- facility-abu-dhabi- port-7636394/

Pair 2 is correct: The country’s borders were closed and its constitution was declared invalid in the announcement read aloud on state television by army Col. Mamadi Doumbouya. https://www.thehindu

.com/news/internatio nal/soldiers-detain- guineas-president- dissolve- government/article36 307866.ece

Pair 3 is correct : Situation in Lebanon: Severe and prolonged economic depression https://www.europarl

.europa.eu/thinktank/ en/document/EPRS_ BRI(2022)729369

https://www.thehindu

.com/news/internatio nal/un-secretary- general-says-more- aid-needed-for-crisis- hit- lebanon/article37994 524.ece

Pair 4 is correct:Tunisia:

President Kais Saied announces dissolution of parliament

https://frontline.thehi ndu.com/dispatches/t unisia-president-kais- saied-announces- dissolution-of- parliament/article653 96227.ece

88 Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned Country in the news

Anatolia – Turkey
Amhara – Ethiopia
Cabo Delgado – Spain
Catalonia – Italy

How many pairs given above are ‘correctly matched’?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs B Pair 1 is correct : The Anatolian Tigers — a new breed of pious businessmen who have risen from the grassroots to fire Turkey’s economic and political transformation — are targeting an entry into the high- technology big league https://www.thehindu

.com/news/internatio nal/anatolian-tigers- drive-turkeys-silent- revolution/article336 4873.ece

Pair 2 is correct: Tigray’s woes: On the conflict in Ethiopia’s north https://www.thehindu

.com/opinion/editoria l/tigrays-woes-the- hindu-editorial-on- the-conflict-in- ethiopias- north/article3573251 9.ece

Pair 3 is incorrect: Mozambique’s military has said a

“significant” number

of militants were killed in fighting for the northern town and gas hub of Palma, seized by

Islamic State-linked jihadists last month.

Palma was taken in a coordinated attack on March 24, in a major escalation of an insurgency that has been raging in Cabo Delgado province for more than three years.

https://www.thehindu. com/news/internation al/palma-safe-from- jihadists-says- mozambique- army/article34247374

.ece

Pair 4 is incorrect: Mass protests broke out across Spain’s Catalonia region after its former separatist leader Carles Puigdemont was arrested in Germany

https://www.thehindu. com/news/internation al/mass-protests- across-catalonia-after- ex-leaders-

arrest/article6187346 2.ece

89 With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only A Statement 1 is correct: . Wild animals, etc., to be Government property.—(1) Every— (a) wild animal, other than vermin

https://legislative.gov

.in/sites/default/files/ A1972-53_0.pdf

Statement 2 is correct: Among other reforms, the Act established schedules of protected plant and animal species; hunting or harvesting these species was largely outlawed. The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants; and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It extends to the whole of India.

Wild Life Protection Act, 1972

Statement 3 is incorrect: For wild animals in Schedule II, III or IV, chief wildlife warden or authorized officers can permit their hunting in a specified

area if they have

become dangerous to humans or property (including standing crops on any land). Even after danger apprehension, killing can not be permitted. https://www.civilsda ily.com/should- culling-of-animals- be-allowed/

https://legislative.gov

.in/sites/default/files/ A1972-53_0.pdf

90 Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(d) Spider A The ant–fungus mutualism is a symbiosis seen between certain ant and fungal species, in which ants actively cultivate fungus much like humans farm crops as a food source. There is only evidence of two instances in which this form of agriculture evolved in ants resulting in a dependence on fungi for food. https://en.wikipedia.o rg/wiki/Ant%E2%80

%93fungus_mutualis m#:~:text=The%20a nt%E2%80%93fung us%20mutualism%2 0is,dependence%20o

n%20fungi%20for% 20food.

91 Consider the following pairs : B Pairs 1 and 2 are

correct:

Site of Ashoka’s Location in the State of major rock edicts

Dhauli — Odisha
Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh
Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh

Pairs 3 and 4 are incorrect: Jaguda is in Odisha and Kalsi is in Uttrakhand

Kalsi — Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs In India, Places

where rock edicts

were found are –

Kalsi, Uttarakhand;

Sopara,

Maharashtra;

Mount Girnar,

Gujarat;

Yerragudi, Andhra

Pradesh; Dhauli,

Odisha; Jaugada,

Odisha.

92 Consider the following pairs :

King Dynasty

Nannuka – Chandela
Jayashakti – Paramara
Nagabhata Il – Gurjara-Pratihara
Bhoja – Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched?=

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All four pairs B Pair 1 is correct : As per A954 CE Khajuraho inscriptions, first king of Chandela dynasty i.e. Nannuka was descendant of sage Chandratreya who was son of famous Vedic sage Atri. https://www.khajurah o-india.org/chandela- dynasty.html

Pair 2 is incorrect: Jayashakti was from Chandela Dynasty https://www.khajurah o-india.org/chandela- dynasty.html

Pair 3 is correct: One prashasti, written in Sanskrit and found in. Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, describes the exploits of.

Nagabhata, a Pratihara king https://ncert.nic.in/nc erts/l/gess102.pdf

Pair 4 is incorrect: Bhoja (reigned c. 1010 – 1055 CE) was

an Indian king from

the Paramara dynasty https://testbook.com

/question- answer/to-which- dynasty-did-the- famous-patron-of- literatu– 590c4c2e1e7cd108cf 293084#:~:text=Det ailed%20Solution,- Download%20Soln

%20PDF&text=Bho ja%20(reigned%20 c.,his%20capital%2

0Dhara%20was%2 0located.

93 Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. B

Source: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India by Upinder Singh

94 “Yogavasistha”was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of :

(a) Akbar

(b) Humayun

(d) Aurangzeb A During the Mughal Dynasty the text was translated into Persian several times, as ordered by Akbar, Jahangir and Darah Shikuh. One of these translations was undertaken by Nizam al-Din Panipati in the late sixteenth century AD https://en.wikipedia.o rg/wiki/Yoga_Vasist

95 The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion. A Ramanuja is famous as the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta.

(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

As per Ramanujs, best means of attaining salvation was intense devotion to Vishnu.

Vishishtadvaita is a non-dualistic school of Vedanta philosophy. It is non- dualism of the qualified whole, in which Brahman alone exists, but is characterized by multiplicity + It can be described as qualified monism or qualified non- dualism or attributive monism. It is a school of Vedanta philosophy which believes in all diversity subsuming to an underlying unity.

2nd option belongs to Mimamsa philosophy

3rd option belong to Nyaya Philosophy

4th Option belong to Yoga school [Patanjali]

96 The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ?

Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni A Statement 1 is correct: The large,

black Shiva lingam at

its heart is one of the

12 most sacred Shiva

shrines, known as

jyotirlinga.

https://www.gujaratt

ourism.com/saurashtr

Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 a/gir- somnath/somnath- temple.html#:~:text= The%20large%2C% 20black%20Shiva%2 0lingam,Mahmud%2 0of%20Ghazni%20fr om%20Afghanistan. Statement 2 is correct: A description of the temple by Al-Biruni, an Arab traveller, was so glowing that it prompted a visit in 1024 by a most unwelcome tourist – the legendary looter Mahmud of Ghazni from Afghanistan https://www.gujaratt ourism.com/saurashtr a/gir- somnath/somnath- temple.html#:~:text= The%20large%2C% 20black%20Shiva%2 0lingam,Mahmud%2 0of%20Ghazni%20fr om%20Afghanistan.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The president of India Dr Rajenrda Prasad did the Pran Pratistha on 11 May 1951

https://hindupad.com

/somnath-pran- pratishtha/

97 Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation

(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body. ] D B cells are essential components of the adaptive immune system, and they were first defined and distinguished from T cells almost 50 years ago1. Both B cells and T cells

recognize pathogens

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

D with antigen-specific receptors, but they differ in their developmental pathways and functions during infections https://www.nature.c om/articles/nrmicro3 415

98 Consider the following statements :

Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 Statement 1 incorrect:Indeed, nature itself is an excellent nanotechnologist. It provides us with a range of fine particles, from inorganic ash, soot, sulfur and mineral particles found in the air or in wells, to sulfur and selenium nanoparticles produced by many bacteria and yeasts. These nanomaterials are entirely natural, and, not surprisingly, there is a growing interest in the development of natural nanoproducts, for instance in the emerging fields of phyto- and phyco- nanotechnology. https://www.ncbi.nl m.nih.gov/pmc/articl es/PMC5789313/

Statement 2 is Correct: Some cosmetic products, such as sunscreens, use mineral-based materials and their performance depends

on their particle size. In sunscreen products, titanium dioxide and zinc oxide, in the size range of 20 nm, are used as efficient UV filters. Their main advantage is that they provide broad UV- protection and do not cause cutaneous adverse health effects https://www.ncbi.nl m.nih.gov/pmc/articl es/PMC3425166/

Statement 3 is correct: Its an established fact Exposure to manufactured nanoparticles. Hazardous materials will present risks to health only if people are exposed to them https://www.ncbi.nl m.nih.gov/pmc/articl

es/PMC2843982/

99 Consider the following statements :

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to :

assess the age of a plant or animal.
distinguish among species that look alike.
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 D

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cant find any references to access the age

Statement 2 is correct: DNA barcodes can aid conservation and research by assisting field workers in identifying species, by helping taxonomists determine species groups needing more detailed analysis, and by facilitating the recognition of the appropriate units and scales for

conservation planning https://www.ncbi.nl m.nih.gov/pmc/artic les/PMC2933245/ Statement 3 is correct: DNA barcoding: a modern age tool for detection of adulteration in food https://pubmed.ncbi

.nlm.nih.gov/335307 58/

100 . Consider the following :

Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Ozone
Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,3 and 4

B Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents https://www.epa.gov/ acidrain/what-acid- rain

Kredoz IAS